Portfolio Risk, Covariance, and Correlation
Why portfolio volatility is not a weighted average. Expand the variance, build the weighted covariance matrix, and explore the opportunity curve.
- Variance expansion shows cross-products
- Weighted covariance matrix = raw matrix × weights
- Factor of 2 from symmetric covariance
- Imperfect correlation lowers volatility
- Two-asset opportunity curve
By the end of this lesson, you should be able to:
- 1Explain why portfolio standard deviation is not a weighted average of individual standard deviations.
- 2Expand the two-asset portfolio variance and identify the cross-product covariance terms.
- 3Build a weighted covariance matrix and sum its entries to obtain portfolio variance.
- 4Apply the two-asset variance formula and interpret the factor of 2.
- 5Compute portfolio volatility for GM and Motorola using historical estimates.
- 6Show how correlation affects achievable portfolio volatility, including the opportunity curve.
Lowercase is a standard deviation; uppercase is the covariance matrix. They are not interchangeable.
Same volatility, different portfolio risk
Before any formula, see the problem. Two assets, each with a volatility of 10%. Depending on how they move, a 50/50 portfolio can be very safe or just as risky as either asset alone.
Each asset alone has . They rise and fall together, so the 50/50 mix swings just as much — portfolio SD stays near 10%.
Same individual volatilities, but when A rises B tends to fall. Gains and losses partially cancel, so portfolio SD can fall well below 10%.
Same individual volatilities in both cases — different portfolio risk. Portfolio risk depends on each asset's own volatility and how they move together. A weighted average of the individual cannot capture that.
Expanding the two-asset variance
The cross-product covariance terms are not an accident. They appear because both assets sit inside the same squared expression. Walk through the expansion one step at a time.
We begin with the two-asset portfolio return and ask what happens when we measure its spread around the mean.
The two-asset portfolio variance is derived by starting from portfolio return, subtracting expected return, squaring the whole expression using (a+b)-squared, mapping the four products into a two-by-two matrix, and combining the two symmetric covariance cells into the factor of two.
- Step 1: Start from portfolio return.
- Step 2: Subtract the expected return.
- Step 3: Square the whole expression.
- Step 4: Map the four products into cells.
- Step 5: Combine the symmetric covariance cells.
Portfolio variance has three parts: A's weighted variance, B's weighted variance, and a cross term from their covariance (written here with correlation ρ).
- Portfolio weights.
- Individual standard deviations.
- Correlation between A and B.
The factor of 2 appears because covariance shows up in both the A-B cell and the B-A cell of the weighted matrix. Since they are equal, they combine into 2 × covariance. Then σ_P = √(σ_P²).
Correlation is covariance scaled into the range [−1, 1]. Rearranging: Cov(,) = ρ σ_A σ_B.
- Correlation, always between −1 and 1.
- Covariance between A and B.
Correlation measures only linear co-movement. It can change — often rising during market stress. Zero correlation is not the same as independence.
Raw matrix vs weighted matrix
The expansion produces four terms that fit naturally into a 2×2 matrix. The raw covariance matrix describes the assets. The weighted matrix describes contributions to a specific portfolio.
Contains relationships between assets. Do not add these directly.
Contains contributions to this portfolio. Sum every cell to get σ²_P.
A 75/25 portfolio, step by step
Historical monthly instructional estimates, 1946–2001. These are teaching numbers, not current estimates.
| Asset | Mean return | Std dev σ |
|---|---|---|
| GM | 1.08% | 6.23% |
| Motorola | 1.75% | 9.73% |
Correlation over this period was . Build a portfolio of 75% GM and 25% Motorola.
E[] ≈ 1.25%
Now the weighted covariance matrix entries (units: percentage-points squared). Combine the two off-diagonal cells, then take the square root only after the variance sum is complete.
| Weighted cell | Calculation | Value |
|---|---|---|
| GM diagonal | 0.75² × 6.23² | 21.83 |
| GM × MOT | 0.75 × 0.25 × 0.37 × 6.23 × 9.73 | 4.21 |
| MOT × GM | 0.25 × 0.75 × 0.37 × 9.73 × 6.23 | 4.21 |
| MOT diagonal | 0.25² × 9.73² | 5.92 |
| Two off-diagonals combine → 2 × 4.21 | 8.42 | |
| Sum = σ²_P (21.83 + 8.42 + 5.92) | 36.16 | |
, .
The portfolio volatility of 6.01% sits below Motorola's 9.73% and close to GM's 6.23%. The partial offset from imperfect correlation pulled risk down.
Fill in the weighted covariance matrix
Using GM (σ = 6.23%, E[R] = 1.08%) and Motorola (σ = 9.73%, E[R] = 1.75%), with ρ = 0.37, at a 75/25 mix. Each cell receives row weight × column weight. Work in percentage-points squared.
How low can correlation drive σ_P?
Two assets, equal weights (50/50), each with σ = 20%. The only thing changing is the correlation. Compute σ_P for each case with the two-asset formula.
The two-asset opportunity curve
Every possible GM/Motorola mix plots as a point on a risk-return graph. Drag the Motorola weight to move along the curve; change the correlation to reshape it.
Historical monthly instructional estimates, GM and Motorola, 1946–2001 — not current estimates.
At ρ = 0.37, the curve bends left — imperfect correlation creates volatility reductions. The current mix has σ_P = 6.01%, below Motorola's 9.73%.
Diversification estimates are uncertain
The diversification benefit depends on the correlation you assume. But correlations are not fixed.
| Regime | ρ | Curve position |
|---|---|---|
| Normal | 0.37 | Bends left — real diversification |
| Stress | 0.80 | Shifts right — benefit shrinks |
When correlations rise during stress, assets that seemed to diversify begin moving together — exactly when you need the protection most. This does not mean correlations always go to 1, but the direction matters.
A 60/40 portfolio, ρ = 0.25
w_A = 60%, w_B = 40%, σ_A = 12%, σ_B = 18%, ρ = 0.25. Work in decimals (e.g. σ_A = 0.12) so the variance is a clean decimal, then convert σ_P back to a percentage at the end.
Questions you may still have
Optional reminders and extensions. The core argument above stays visible; these expand on it.
Answer all questions, then check your work. You can retry any time — mastery is based on correctness, not speed.
- 01
Why is portfolio SD not a weighted average of individual SDs?
- 02
In the two-asset formula, why is there a factor of 2 in front of the covariance term?
- 03
GM/Motorola at 75/25 weights. σ_P ≈ ?
- 04
ρ = 1, equal weights, σ_A = σ_B = 20%. σ_P?
- 05
ρ = −1, equal weights, σ_A = σ_B = 20%. σ_P?
- 06
60/40, σ_A = 12%, σ_B = 18%, ρ = 0.25. σ_P ≈ ?
- 1Portfolio variance expands the weighted return expression, producing cross-product covariance terms.
- 2The weighted covariance matrix applies row and column weights to each cell.
- 3Portfolio variance = sum of all weighted matrix entries.
- 4The factor of 2 arises from two symmetric covariance cells combining.
- 5Imperfect correlation (ρ < 1) can produce portfolio SD below any individual asset SD.
- 6The two-asset opportunity curve shows achievable risk-return combinations.
- 7Correlations can change, especially during stress — diversification estimates are uncertain.